A very little doubt about partial correlation

Hello everybody,
I have just a quick question concerning partial correlation:
Does this picture mean that 45% of the variance in Y that cannot be explained by X2 or X3, can be
uniquely explained by X1?
Thank you for your time


TS Contributor
The squared (!) partial correlation corresponds to the proportion of the variance explained
after the effects of the other variables (on the focus variable and on Y) have been removed.