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In regards to

**Standard Multiple Regression**, to calculate the variance of the IVs on the DV, we just multiple our R by 100?

And, does this percentage account as the "effect size"/ magnitude of our model? Lastly, do we judge our effective size based on Cohen (1988) 0.10 (small), 0.30 (medium), and 0.50 (large)?

Also, when we determine

**the effect size in a Pearson product-moment correlation**, we multiple R by itself and then multiple it by 100?

Waiting for your response, thanks in advance!

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