For simple OLS models the expected value of the residuals (E(ϵ)=0) can be show to be zero if an intercept is included in the regression equation. I am using a LASSO model and was wondering if the same is true here? Can anybody help me show why/why not?
Thanks

If I recall there are fewer assumptions with LASSO than OLS and there is not an intercept term when the DV is continuous. Residuals are used to examine model fit, but not put through the testing press like in OLS.