When I run a multiple regression with both variables, the R^2 is above 90%, significance F is zero and both variables have P-values below 5%. However, the coefficients for both are now positive. How do I interpret that and is that an issue? Just seems unintuitive to have a positive coefficient for variable 1. Assume there is something about the correlation between the two variables that explains it but if I was to just alter IV#1, the result is unintuitive (i.e., if I increase IV#1, would expect a decrease in the predicted value, not an increase).

Thanks.