Inverse of CDF

Mada

New Member
#1
I am struggling to understand the second formula. I understand the first formula. I don't understand why F(x) is greater than or equal to y in the second formula. Shouldn't the sign be similar to the first formula?
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Dason

Ambassador to the humans
#2
Would you prefer it if it said inf{x: y <= F(x)} instead? Then it would match up with Q(p). It's literally the same thing though.