Hi obh,

Thank you for your reply. No, none of the independent values have changed, but their effect on the dependent variable may have changed if that makes sense! By running a regression model would it not allow me to determine the overall fit of the model and the relative contribution of each of the predictors to the total variance explained? Since I have two data points for each participant in a longitudinal study, I was hoping that each of these could work as their own control and make my results more accurate. I was thinking a mixed-effects model might work best, but I am open to suggestions.