I know this test is used for two groups and involves a normally distributed, continuous variable--and it involves the difference in means. Does the assumption include equal variances as in the case of the independent t-test? Would that be the case for one-sample t-test, too?
If it sounds like I don't know what I'm talking about--you're right!
Thanks very, very much!
If it sounds like I don't know what I'm talking about--you're right!
Thanks very, very much!