I am considering using regression (either Cox or Logistic) analysis to estimate the probability of breakdown of vehicles in a fleet.
I have some evidence showing that likelihood of breakdown is influenced by the following variables:
sex (of owner)
age (of owner)
age (of vehicle)
amongst others.
Regression can be used to estimate the probability of breakdown at a given time based on the some known assumptions about the vehicle owner.
I have hit a stumbling block in the following situation:
when a previous owner (say a 53yo male) gives the vehicle to a new owner (say a 20yo female).
Intuitively I feel that the usage of the previous owner will affect the state of the vehicle and hence the probability of the new owner breaking down will be altered but I am unsure how to describe this mathematically.
I had considered averaging:
i.e. if male is represented '1' and female '0' then in this situation VAR is '0.5'
but this is just guesswork.
Any help would be appreciated.
I have some evidence showing that likelihood of breakdown is influenced by the following variables:
sex (of owner)
age (of owner)
age (of vehicle)
amongst others.
Regression can be used to estimate the probability of breakdown at a given time based on the some known assumptions about the vehicle owner.
I have hit a stumbling block in the following situation:
when a previous owner (say a 53yo male) gives the vehicle to a new owner (say a 20yo female).
Intuitively I feel that the usage of the previous owner will affect the state of the vehicle and hence the probability of the new owner breaking down will be altered but I am unsure how to describe this mathematically.
I had considered averaging:
i.e. if male is represented '1' and female '0' then in this situation VAR is '0.5'
but this is just guesswork.
Any help would be appreciated.