Hi All,
Just trying to answer something in my mind...
If I had calculated (using poisson) the chances of various scores occurring in a football match, in theory, I could get a %age chance of a full time scoreline.
Likewise, I could perform all the same calculations for the half time score, and thus have the %age chance of a score at the end of the 1st Half.
Now my question is...if I had 'calculated' (use the term loosely!) that the chance of the score at half time being 1-0 to the home team as 16.4% and then the final score being 2-1 to the home team as being 8.8%...is the odds of BOTH of those being true calculated as .164 * .088 = .014432 (1.4432%)???
I appreciate there are questions on how I 'calculated' these percentages in the first place, but is all hypothetical really, just interested as to how you'd calculate the probability of that really!
Thanks so Much!
Chris
Just trying to answer something in my mind...
If I had calculated (using poisson) the chances of various scores occurring in a football match, in theory, I could get a %age chance of a full time scoreline.
Likewise, I could perform all the same calculations for the half time score, and thus have the %age chance of a score at the end of the 1st Half.
Now my question is...if I had 'calculated' (use the term loosely!) that the chance of the score at half time being 1-0 to the home team as 16.4% and then the final score being 2-1 to the home team as being 8.8%...is the odds of BOTH of those being true calculated as .164 * .088 = .014432 (1.4432%)???
I appreciate there are questions on how I 'calculated' these percentages in the first place, but is all hypothetical really, just interested as to how you'd calculate the probability of that really!
Thanks so Much!
Chris