I am relatively new to statistics and I try to do my best. I will appreciate any helpful inputs form you.

First, I had to generate a regression model for "at what age one completed one's education" (independent) and "number of children" (dependent). Then a second model where I had to include a third variable "present age". I had to interpret the data, which I did, but there is another assignment that wants me to say if the relationship in the first model is spurious.

I am confused .... I think that in my case the relationship is not spurious and that we can use the changes in the independent variable to predict the changes in the dependent, although I am not sure and need help.

How can we define spuriousness in this case???

Here I put the data form the regression analysis (both models) and will appreciate any help:

Adjusted R square for model 1 is .045; for model 2 is .195

The regression coefficient in model 1 is (-.040); t-value is -6.884 and p-value is .000

The regression coefficient in model 2 is (-.026) (when controlling for 'present age'); t-value is -4.818 and p-value is .000

The regression coefficient in model 2 is (.022) (when controlling for 'at what age one completed one's education'); t-value is 13.481 and p-value is .000

PS: I interpreted the data for the models, I need help with the question if it is spurious

Thanks,