Very high standardized coefficient beta (binary logistic regression)

[FlexTistic]

I am comparing the influence of eleven independent variables on one binary dependent variable. I decided to use the standardized coefficient beta for the comparsion because some of the variables use different units of measurement.

One of my variables has a unstandardized coefficient of -0.0007 which I assume to be fine, because it is a $ amount that goes from 0 to 1 Million and I also have some dependend dummy variables. But the standardized coefficent of that variable is over -7.5. As far as I know this indiciates multicollinearity but none of my variables have a VIF lower than 1 or higher than 1.7.

How do I know if I can just interpret the standardized coefficient or if I first need to do something else?

Sorry, if the question is confusing. I am a total beginner at statistics.

 

[hlsmith]

I have never been able to process in my mind how a person would interpret a standardized categorical (e.g., > 2 groups) variable in a regression. Even a binary variable that was standardized is pretty darn weird to interpret. If you can't interpret them, do you really need to standardize them, the categorical variables that is.

 

[FlexTistic]

Thanks for the quick answer.

The only two categorial independent variables are binary variables and for these two the unstandardized coefficient is the same as the standardized one. So I shouldn't have any trouble interpreting these two.

 

[hlsmith]

Perhaps we are talking about two different things, but a standardized binary variable would be 0 for its prevalence and a unit would be a std increase right. I didn't think it would have the same coefficient.

I didn't follow your original thoughts about collinearity?