P( having one girl)= 1/2 (.50) or 50%
P( having at least one girl)= 1- P( no girl). We can't calculate this because there's a 50% chance it could be a boy or a girl. Does this make sense?
So the family with 8 boys aspiring to have one girl has nothing to do with this question, correct? If so, then ( please correct me) having one girl is NOT the same event of having at least one girl.
It’s a combinatorics project for my beginner stats class. I’ve done the project several times and keep getting it wrong. The question reads: “ Is having a girl the same event as having AT LEAST one girl?” AND then it asks me: “Is it possible to calculate these probabilities?” This project is...