Hello, I have a question that might appear very easy to most of you, but im struggling.
To put it short: I have a questionnaire that works with 7-point Likert-Type questions. For instance, five questions that ask risk tolerance of people. The higher the score, the higher the risk tolerance. I calculated the average score of those five questions. Now I want to see whether the gender of my participants correlates with the scores. I transformed male to 0 and female to 1. I was then using bivariate correlations in SPSS and for instance get the result of -0.454**. Is this the right way? Can I interpret this value usefully? I was thinking that this means, that the higher the risk tolerance, the lower the gender score. As I used 0 for male and 1 for female, I interpreted that male have a higher risk tolerance or vice versa, female have a lower risk tolerance.
Does this sound right?
To put it short: I have a questionnaire that works with 7-point Likert-Type questions. For instance, five questions that ask risk tolerance of people. The higher the score, the higher the risk tolerance. I calculated the average score of those five questions. Now I want to see whether the gender of my participants correlates with the scores. I transformed male to 0 and female to 1. I was then using bivariate correlations in SPSS and for instance get the result of -0.454**. Is this the right way? Can I interpret this value usefully? I was thinking that this means, that the higher the risk tolerance, the lower the gender score. As I used 0 for male and 1 for female, I interpreted that male have a higher risk tolerance or vice versa, female have a lower risk tolerance.
Does this sound right?
