Hi all,
You will need to forgive me if this sounds a bit primitive but I'm not a stats guy. Working on a project which I've come across a bit of a bump with.
I've been given a data series. Property information including Past Sale Price (Dependent), No# of Bedrooms, Bathrooms , Carparks (Ind V) and Rental Yield (%)(Ind V).
My issue is that rental yield (%) is derived from Past Sale Price. Is it possible to complete a regression analysis where an independent variable is derived from the dependent variable without it be bias?
Secondly, a property that might have sold for $500,000 could have a rental yield of 4%. Similarly a property that sold for $400,000, $900,000 or $750,000 could also have a rental yield of 5% not giving any defining nature to it.
The data is from 100 properties.
Looking forward to hearing some feedback
You will need to forgive me if this sounds a bit primitive but I'm not a stats guy. Working on a project which I've come across a bit of a bump with.
I've been given a data series. Property information including Past Sale Price (Dependent), No# of Bedrooms, Bathrooms , Carparks (Ind V) and Rental Yield (%)(Ind V).
My issue is that rental yield (%) is derived from Past Sale Price. Is it possible to complete a regression analysis where an independent variable is derived from the dependent variable without it be bias?
Secondly, a property that might have sold for $500,000 could have a rental yield of 4%. Similarly a property that sold for $400,000, $900,000 or $750,000 could also have a rental yield of 5% not giving any defining nature to it.
The data is from 100 properties.
Looking forward to hearing some feedback