Question on Logistic Regression

#1
Why do they call it logistic regression when the inverse of the Logit is what is modelled? or am I wrong?

The inverse logit creates the sigmoidal curve where y max is 1 and y min is 0 and x can be from negative to positive infinity.

I feel stupid for asking this. I believe I have it wrong. Any explanation to clear this up for me will be appreciated, Thanks
 

hlsmith

Less is more. Stay pure. Stay poor.
#2
Talking with out thinking, but don't you use the Logit to get the log odds and expit to backtranform. So logistic regression generates log odds for coefficients.
 
#3
Why do they call it regression period at all :) (the answer has to do with regression to the mean, but that has little to do with modern regression practice or theory).

My point is that I don't think it really matters what they call it, its largely historical accident in many cases.