*the*

observations themselves can be regarded as sums of independent random

vectors or effects".

observations themselves can be regarded as sums of independent random

vectors or effects

**Mi question is if every time observations regarded as sums of independent random effects follow a (more or less) normal distribution?**Mi intuition says no, but I have not been able to find an answer to this. I would be really grateful if someone can provide a counterexample or an explanation to this.

Thanks a lot!

Axs